Sunday, 7 April 2019

Numbers 25:13—“… the covenant of an everlasting priesthood …”



Phinehas, the son of Eleazar, the son of Aaron the priest, hath turned my wrath away from the children of Israel, while he was zealous for my sake among them, that I consumed not the children of Israel in my jealousy. Wherefore say, Behold, I give unto him my covenant of peace: and he shall have it, and his seed after him, even the covenant of an everlasting priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for the children of Israel (Num. 25:11-13).


NOTE:
Reformed theology, in the defense of infant baptism, holds that there is only one covenant of grace taught throughout Scripture, as opposed to the Baptist/Dispensationalist position which holds that there are two or more covenants. That there is only one covenant is proved by the fact that God’s covenant is described in many places as “everlasting” (i.e. forever/unending). By definition, there can only be one everlasting covenant.

However, Baptists and Dispensationalists (as well as proponents of “New Covenant Theology”) respond to this position by claiming that the word rendered “everlasting” in the Authorized Version (KJV), doesn’t always mean “unending” or “forever” but can rather mean simply “a long period of time” (something that can come to an end).

Numbers 25:13 is appealed to in support of this claim. The argument is that the Levitical priesthood only lasted a short period of time and was replaced by Christ, our High Priest—and yet, the text speaks of an “everlasting priesthood” seemingly being promised to Phinehas as a reward for his heroic and godly deed of slaying the fornicators who publicly and brazenly committed their act of fornication in the sight of the nation of Israel.

So how do we view the word “everlasting” in this text, in the light of the abolishing of the Levitical priesthood in the New Testament age? What is this promise of a “covenant of an everlasting priesthood”?

The short answer to this apparent ‘conundrum’ is that the words covenant of an everlasting priesthood,’ ultimately apply only to Christ, of whom Phinehas, in his zeal, is undoubtedly a type; and that it is very bad exegesis to read the ‘temporary earthly Levitical priesthood’ into the text as a sort of interpretive key in order then to twist and mangle a word (i.e. ‘everlasting’) which usually means elsewhere, in abundant places, “never-ending.”


(I)

Prof. Herman C. Hanko

[Source: Covenant Reformed News, vol. 10, no. 8]

[As] well as Malachi 2:4-5 there is another place in Scripture where God’s choice of the priesthood of Levi is called a covenant which He establishes. I refer to the heroic and godly deed of slaying the fornicators who publicly and brazenly committed their act of fornication in the sight of the nation. This was at the time when the daughters of Moab, at the suggestion of Balaam, tempted the men of Israel to join in the sacrifices and fornications of Moab’s idolatry. Phinehas slew a prince of Simeon named Zimri and the Moabite woman he took into his tent.

God’s word was:

Phinehas, the son of Eleazar, the son of Aaron the priest, hath turned my wrath away from the children of Israel, while he was zealous for my sake among them, that I consumed not the children of Israel in my jealousy. Wherefore say, Behold, I give unto him my covenant of peace: and he shall have it, and his seed after him, even the covenant of an everlasting priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for the children of Israel (Num. 25:11-13).

Notice that the covenant with Phinehas is described as everlasting, something not possible with Phinehas himself; and thus a reference to Christ.

Second, Christ is the fulfilment of all the priests of the tribe of Levi as the great High Priest sent from God to make perfect atonement for sin. He is the realization of God’s covenant with Phinehas. Christ is the perfect fulfilment because He offers the perfect sacrifice for sin and thus fulfils all the sacrifices specifically mentioned [throughout Scripture]. Although this is one of the great themes in the book of Hebrews, it is specifically taught in chapter 10:1-14—which passage our readers are urged to look up and read. In Christ, therefore, the promise of God concerning the Levites is fulfilled.


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(II)

Homer C. Hoeksema (1923-1989)


These words [of Numbers 25:11] are uttered first with reference to Phinehas. But in the final instance, as they make mention of ‘the covenant of an everlasting priesthood,’ they can ultimately apply only to Christ, of whom Phinehas, in his zeal, is undoubtedly a type.


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(III)

Anon.

IF the objector is right that ‘everlasting’ does not necessarily mean ‘never-ending’ but can simply mean ‘for a long specified time’ how would he argue this regarding God’s ‘covenant,’ given the repetition of this term in Scripture, the nature of the covenant as friendship with God, its continuing into the new creation (Rev. 21:3), etc.?

If I prove that word X doesn’t always mean its main meaning, it is still incumbent on me to argue from the context, etc., that it doesn’t mean that in a particular place.

Why not argue that since X usually means everlasting, it should be taken to mean everlasting unless there are good reasons in a particular case to the contrary? This is simple logic and common sense. We don’t even need to know the Hebrew or consult a lexicon to understand this.


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(IV)

More to come! (DV)






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